Chapter 8 • 110% Syllabus Coverage

Mutual Funds

Exhaustive Topic-wise Notes covering Regulatory Architecture, Scheme Classification, ETFs vs. Index Funds, Computation of Net Asset Value (NAV), Front-End & Exit Load Mechanics, Dividend vs. Bonus Plans, Risk-Adjusted Performance Ratios (Sharpe, Treynor, Jensen, Fama Decomposition) and Constant Ratio Portfolio Rebalancing.

Topic 1: Introduction, Concept & Three-Tier Regulatory Architecture

ICAI Study Material Text:
A Mutual Fund is a trust that pools together the resources of investors to make a foray into investments in the capital market, thereby making each investor a part-owner of the assets of the fund. It is an investment vehicle that allows small investors to participate in a professionally managed portfolio of equity shares, debentures, bonds, and money market instruments.

Structure and Regulatory Architecture under SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996:
In India, a mutual fund is structured as a three-tier fiduciary entity comprising:

  • 1. Sponsor: The promoter who initiates the mutual fund. The sponsor must be an established entity in the financial services business for at least 5 years with a sound track record and positive net worth in all immediately preceding 5 years. The sponsor appoints the trustees and must contribute at least 40% to the net worth of the Asset Management Company (AMC).
  • 2. Trustees: A Board of Trustees or a Trustee Company holds the property of the mutual fund in trust for the benefit of the unit holders. At least two-thirds (66.7%) of the trustees/directors of the trustee company must be independent (not associated with the sponsor). The trustees enter into an Investment Management Agreement with the AMC and exercise oversight over all schemes.
  • 3. Asset Management Company (AMC): The operational arm that manages the fund's investment portfolio in accordance with the scheme objectives and SEBI regulations. The AMC must have a minimum net worth of ₹ 50 Crores (increased to ₹ 100 Crores for certain categories). At least 50% of the AMC's board of directors must be independent.
  • 4. Custodian & Depository: An independent entity registered with SEBI that holds the physical securities and safe-keeps the financial assets of the fund in dematerialized form. The custodian cannot be associated with the AMC.
  • 5. Registrar and Transfer Agents (RTAs): Process investor applications, issue account statements, maintain unit-holder registers, and execute unit redemptions.

Clear Explanation & Conceptual Mechanics:
Why is a mutual fund structured as a Trust rather than a corporate company? Under the Indian Trust Act, 1882, the property of a trust is held for the beneficial interest of its beneficiaries (the unit holders). By separating the Trustees (who safeguard investor rights) from the AMC (who manages the money), Indian law prevents conflict of interest. The AMC cannot misappropriate investor funds because the securities are legally locked with an independent Custodian. If an AMC underperforms or engages in malpractice, the Trustees or 75% of unit holders have statutory power to terminate the AMC's appointment.

Exam Relevance & Scoring Focus:
• Frequently Tested: 4-mark theory question on 'Explain the establishment of a Mutual Fund and the role of Trustees vs. AMC' (see TYK Theory Q1).
• Key Keywords for Marking: Minimum 5-year track record for Sponsor, minimum 40% net worth contribution by Sponsor, two-thirds independent Trustees, 50% independent AMC directors, minimum net worth requirement of AMC.

Topic 2: Classification of Mutual Funds (Functional, Portfolio & Ownership)

ICAI Study Material Text:
Mutual funds in India are classified into three distinct dimensions:

  • 1. Functional Classification (Liquidity & Entry/Exit):
    • Open-Ended Schemes: Units are offered for sale and repurchase on a continuous basis at NAV-related prices throughout the year. There is no fixed maturity period. Capitalization is flexible and expands/contracts based on investor cash flows.
    • Close-Ended Schemes: Units are offered for subscription during a specified New Fund Offer (NFO) period and have a predetermined maturity period (e.g., 3 to 5 years). After NFO, fresh subscriptions are closed. Units must be compulsorily listed on a recognized stock exchange to provide liquidity to investors.
    • Interval Schemes: A hybrid structure combining features of open-ended and close-ended funds. Units are traded on stock exchanges and opened for direct subscription/redemption at predetermined intervals (e.g., monthly, quarterly, or semi-annually).
  • 2. Portfolio / Objective-Based Classification:
    • Equity Schemes: Growth-oriented funds investing predominantly in equity shares.
    • Debt / Income Schemes: Focus on capital preservation and regular income by investing in government securities, corporate bonds, commercial paper, and certificates of deposit.
    • Hybrid / Balanced Schemes: Strategic asset allocation between equity (for capital appreciation) and debt (for stability).
    • Money Market / Liquid Funds: Invest in short-term money market instruments with maturity up to 91 days.
    • Gilt Funds: Invest exclusively in sovereign government securities with zero credit risk.
  • 3. Ownership Classification: Public Sector Funds (e.g., SBI Mutual Fund, UTI), Private Sector Funds (e.g., HDFC, ICICI Prudential), and Foreign/Joint Venture Funds.

Clear Explanation & Practical Mechanics:
The most critical distinction for practical problems is between Open-Ended and Close-Ended funds: In an open-ended fund, if an investor purchases units, the AMC creates new units (increasing total units outstanding), and when an investor redeems, units are extinguished. In a close-ended fund, total units remain constant; an investor wanting to exit before maturity must sell to another investor on the stock exchange. Because of supply-demand dynamics and lack of immediate liquidity, close-ended fund units frequently trade at a discount to their NAV.

Exam Relevance & Scoring Focus:
• Key Practical Implication: Close-ended funds with discounts/premiums (e.g., D Mutual Fund and K Mutual Fund in TYK Q21).
• Understand Interval schemes as a hybrid for theoretical classification questions.

Topic 3: Types of Schemes, ETFs, Index Funds & Fund of Funds

ICAI Study Material Text:
SEBI's Categorization and Rationalization of Mutual Fund Schemes circular mandates standard scheme categories:

  • Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs): Open-ended index funds that track an index (e.g., Nifty 50, Sensex, Gold) and trade on stock exchanges in real time like equity shares. Unlike traditional mutual funds whose NAV is computed once at the end of the day, ETF prices fluctuate continuously throughout trading hours. Authorized Participants (APs) create and redeem units in large institutional baskets, maintaining arbitrage parity between ETF market prices and underlying NAV.
  • Index Funds: Passively managed open-ended mutual funds replicating a benchmark index. The fund manager invests in the exact proportions of the underlying index. Characterized by low expense ratios and negligible portfolio turnover.
  • Tracking Error: The divergence between the price behavior of an index fund/ETF and the price behavior of its underlying benchmark index. $$\text{Tracking Error} = \sqrt{\frac{\sum (R_{fund,t} - R_{index,t})^2}{n-1}}$$ Tracking error arises from cash drag, transaction costs, management fees, and timing lags in dividend reinvestment.
  • Fund of Funds (FoF): A mutual fund scheme that invests in units of other mutual fund schemes rather than direct equities or bonds. Offers hyper-diversification but carries dual expense layers.
  • Capital Protection Oriented Schemes (CPOS): Close-ended schemes structured so that a dominant portion (e.g., 80-85%) is invested in high-rated debt securities whose maturity value equals the initial principal (protecting capital), while the residual portion is invested in equity options/derivatives to generate equity upside.

Clear Explanation: Passive Investing vs. Active Management:
Why are ETFs and Index Funds increasingly popular? Active fund managers charge higher fees (up to 2.25% p.a.) promising to generate Alpha ($\alpha$). However, empirical studies demonstrate that over long horizons, most active managers fail to beat their benchmark after fees. Passive index funds eliminate manager risk, minimize portfolio churn, and guarantee index returns minus a minimal tracking error (typically 0.10% to 0.30%).

Exam Relevance & Scoring Focus:
• Short note questions on 'Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) vs. Traditional Index Mutual Funds'.
• Definition and formula for 'Tracking Error'.
• Structure of 'Capital Protection Oriented Schemes' (often asked as a 4-mark theory question).

Topic 4: Advantages and Drawbacks of Mutual Funds

ICAI Study Material Text:
Advantages of Investing in Mutual Funds:

  • (a) Professional Management: Skilled fund managers backed by quantitative models and equity research teams analyze financial statements, macroeconomic indicators, and corporate governance.
  • (b) Risk Diversification: An individual investor with ₹ 5,000 cannot buy 50 blue-chip stocks. A mutual fund achieves diversification across sectors and market capitalizations, eliminating unsystematic risk.
  • (c) Economies of Scale & Low Transaction Costs: Bulk trading results in lower brokerage and depository fees.
  • (d) Liquidity: Open-ended funds allow daily redemption at prevailing NAV.
  • (e) Tax Efficiency: Long-term equity gains qualify for favorable tax rates (Section 112A), and dividends/capital gains internal to the fund compound tax-free until withdrawal.
Drawbacks & Limitations:
  • (a) No Guarantee of Return: Mutual fund investments are subject to market risks. Even high-rated schemes can suffer capital erosion during market downturns.
  • (b) Diversification Penalty: Extreme diversification prevents astronomical returns. An active investor picking 2 multi-bagger stocks can outperform an index fund, whereas mutual funds are legally barred from holding more than 10% in a single company.
  • (c) Management Fees and Operating Expenses: Ongoing Total Expense Ratio (TER) of 1.5% to 2.25% creates a permanent performance drag regardless of whether the fund makes profits or losses.
  • (d) Cash Drag: Open-ended funds must maintain 3% to 7% of their portfolio in cash/liquid assets to meet daily redemptions, dragging down returns during bull runs.

Clear Explanation & Real-World Context:
The trade-off between investing directly in stocks versus mutual funds is fundamentally a trade-off between Control & Concentration versus Convenience & Diversification. For exam answers, always cite both the statutory limits on single-stock concentration (maximum 10% per issuer under SEBI regulations) and the impact of the Total Expense Ratio on net investor returns.

Exam Relevance & Scoring Focus:
• 4-mark standard question: 'What are the advantages and drawbacks of investing in mutual funds?' (Directly addresses TYK Theory Q2).
• Must present points under clear headings with financial terminology.

Topic 5: Computation of Net Asset Value (NAV), Front-End & Exit Loads

ICAI Study Material Text:
1. Net Asset Value (NAV) Formula:
Net Asset Value represents the net market worth of a single unit of a mutual fund scheme: $$\mathbf{NAV = \frac{\text{Total Assets of Scheme} - \text{Total Liabilities of Scheme}}{\text{Total Number of Outstanding Units}}}$$ Where:

  • Total Assets = Market Value of Listed Equities + Market Value of Listed Debentures/Bonds + Value of Unlisted / Illiquid Securities (as per SEBI valuation norms) + Accrued Dividend & Interest Receivable + Cash, Bank Balances & Money Market Placements + Other Assets (e.g. receivables for securities sold).
  • Total Liabilities = Accrued Management Fees & Operating Expenses Payable + Payables for Securities Purchased + Unclaimed Dividends + Outstanding Short-Term Borrowings + Other Accrued Liabilities.
2. Load Mechanics (Entry Load & Exit Load):
  • Public Offer Price (Sale Price / Issue Price): $$\text{Public Offer Price (POP)} = \text{NAV} \times (1 + \text{Front-End Load \%}) \quad \text{or} \quad \text{POP} = \frac{\text{NAV}}{1 - \text{Front-End Load \%}}$$ (Note: Under current SEBI regulations, Entry Load has been banned; funds issue units at par NAV. However, historical ICAI questions continue to test the mathematical formula where Entry Load is added to NAV.)
  • Repurchase Price (Redemption Price): $$\mathbf{\text{Redemption Price} = \text{NAV} \times (1 - \text{Exit Load \%})} \quad \text{or} \quad \mathbf{\text{Redemption Price} = \frac{\text{NAV}}{1 + \text{Back-End Load \%}}}$$ Depending on whether the load is expressed as a percentage of NAV or Redemption Price.

Clear Explanation & Step-by-Step NAV Calculation Mechanics:
In practical exam questions (e.g., TYK Practical Q7, Q8, Q9, Q19, Q20), calculating NAV requires strict adherence to chronological accounting:

  1. Step 1: Value all portfolio securities at the closing market quotation as of the valuation date (e.g. 4:00 PM on valuation day).
  2. Step 2: Add all cash balances, liquid funds, dividends declared but not yet credited, and interest accrued.
  3. Step 3: Deduct all accrued AMC management fees, custodian charges, audit fees, and unpaid broker dues.
  4. Step 4: Divide the resulting Net Assets by the total number of units outstanding on that date.

Exam Relevance & Scoring Focus:
• Guaranteed 8-10 mark question: Comprehensive NAV computation involving a multi-company equity portfolio, bonds, accrued expenses, management fees, and fresh unit issues (e.g. Cinderella MF, Steady MF, Fair Return MF).
• Common Trap: Remember to calculate management fees on the Average Net Assets or Gross Assets exactly as specified in the problem statement!

Topic 6: Mutual Fund Returns, Effective Yield & Bonus vs. Dividend Plans

ICAI Study Material Text:
1. Return on Mutual Fund Investment:
An investor in a mutual fund earns returns through three distinct channels:

  • Dividend Income ($D_1$): Regular cash payouts declared from scheme profits.
  • Capital Gain Distribution ($CG_1$): Profits realized by the AMC from selling underlying securities distributed to unit holders.
  • Capital Appreciation / Change in NAV ($\Delta \text{NAV} = \text{NAV}_1 - \text{NAV}_0$): Growth in the underlying value of the units.
$$\mathbf{\text{Total Return } (R) = \frac{(\text{NAV}_1 - \text{NAV}_0) + D_1 + CG_1}{\text{NAV}_0} \times 100}$$ 2. Annualized vs. Effective Compounded Yield: $$\text{Simple Annualized Return} = R \times \frac{12}{M} \quad \text{or} \quad R \times \frac{365}{\text{Days}}$$ $$\mathbf{\text{Effective Annualized Yield } (EAY) = (1 + r_{period})^{N} - 1}$$ Where $r_{period}$ is the holding period return and $N$ is the number of compounding periods in a year. 3. Mutual Fund Investment Plans:
  • Growth Plan: No dividends are distributed; all profits and gains are automatically retained and reflected in an increasing NAV.
  • Dividend Payout Plan: Dividends are paid out in cash. Post-dividend, the scheme's NAV drops by the exact amount of dividend distributed per unit.
  • Dividend Reinvestment Plan: The declared dividend is not paid in cash; instead, it is utilized to purchase additional units for the investor at the ex-dividend NAV.
  • Bonus Plan: Additional bonus units are allotted to unit holders (e.g. 1 bonus unit for every 5 units held). Post-bonus, the total number of units increases and the NAV per unit drops proportionally.

Clear Explanation & Comparative Wealth Analysis:
A classic ICAI exam problem (e.g., TYK Q16 Sun Moon MF, TYK Q17 Plan-D vs Plan-B) asks students to evaluate whether an investor should choose a Dividend Reinvestment Plan or a Bonus Plan under differing income tax rules. Under Indian tax law: • Dividends received / reinvested may attract specific tax liabilities or TDS. • Bonus units carry an acquisition cost of ₹ Nil for capital gains computation. When bonus units are sold, the holding period is measured from the date of bonus allotment. • Students must construct a chronological ledger tracking: Units held $ ightarrow$ Dividends received $ ightarrow$ Fresh units purchased at ex-dividend NAV $ ightarrow$ Bonus units added $ ightarrow$ Final maturity redemption $ ightarrow$ Net post-tax IRR / Effective Yield.

Exam Relevance & Scoring Focus:
• 10-12 mark comprehensive case study: Multi-year comparison of Plan A (Dividend Reinvestment) vs. Plan B (Bonus Units) (e.g., Mrs. Charu in TYK Q16).
• Precision in unit calculations (maintain at least 3 to 4 decimal places for unit counts) is essential to match ICAI model answers.

Topic 7: Performance Evaluation (Sharpe, Treynor, Jensen, Fama & Rebalancing)

ICAI Study Material Text:
1. Risk-Adjusted Performance Measures:

  • Sharpe Ratio (Reward to Variability): $$\mathbf{S = \frac{R_p - R_f}{\sigma_p}}$$ Evaluates excess return per unit of Total Risk (Standard Deviation). Appropriate when the mutual fund represents the investor's entire portfolio.
  • Treynor Ratio (Reward to Volatility): $$\mathbf{T = \frac{R_p - R_f}{\beta_p}}$$ Evaluates excess return per unit of Systematic Risk (Beta). Appropriate when the mutual fund is held as part of a well-diversified multi-asset portfolio.
  • Jensen's Alpha ($\alpha_p$): $$\mathbf{\alpha_p = R_p - [R_f + \beta_p(R_m - R_f)]}$$ Measures the absolute abnormal return generated by the fund manager over and above the CAPM benchmark. $\alpha > 0$ indicates superior security selection.
2. Fama's Performance Decomposition: Eugene Fama partitioned total fund return into: $$\text{Total Excess Return } (R_p - R_f) = \text{Risk Premium} + \text{Selectivity}$$ $$\text{Risk Premium} = \beta_p(R_m - R_f)$$ $$\text{Gross Selectivity} = R_p - [R_f + \beta_p(R_m - R_f)] = \alpha_p$$ $$\mathbf{\text{Diversification Penalty} = \left(\frac{\sigma_p}{\sigma_m} - \beta_p ight)(R_m - R_f)}$$ $$\mathbf{\text{Net Selectivity} = \text{Gross Selectivity} - \text{Diversification Penalty} = (R_p - R_f) - \frac{\sigma_p}{\sigma_m}(R_m - R_f)}$$ 3. Portfolio Rebalancing Techniques:
  • Constant Ratio Plan: The investor maintains a predetermined ratio between aggressive (equity fund) and conservative (bond) portfolios (e.g., 50:50). Whenever market movements cause the ratio to shift beyond a threshold (or at periodic rebalancing dates), securities are sold from the appreciated fund and reinvested in the lagging fund to restore the target 50:50 proportion.
  • Variable Ratio Plan: The aggressive-conservative ratio is dynamically adjusted based on market valuation levels (e.g. Nifty PE ratio). As market valuation rises, equity allocation is reduced; as markets become undervalued, equity allocation is increased.

Clear Explanation & Intuition:
Why is Fama's Net Selectivity so important? A fund manager might boast of generating an Alpha ($\alpha$) of +2.5%. However, if the fund manager achieved this by taking huge unsystematic/specific risks (i.e., failing to diversify, so that $\frac{\sigma_p}{\sigma_m} > \beta_p$), the investor suffered an extra risk for which the market does not reward them. Net Selectivity deducts the cost of this inadequate diversification. Only if Net Selectivity > 0 did the manager possess true stock-picking skill!

Exam Relevance & Scoring Focus:
• Sharpe and Treynor ranking problems (TYK Q21: D Mutual Fund vs. K Mutual Fund).
• Constant Ratio Plan simulation (TYK Q23: Ms. Sunidhi 10-month rebalancing simulation vs. Buy & Hold).
• Fama's Decomposition 4-step table (Net Selectivity, Diversification Penalty, Stock Selection).

Test Your Knowledge • Theory

Theoretical Questions & Model Answers

Exhaustive structured model answers as per ICAI Study Material standards.

Theory Question 1: Establishment & Regulatory Architecture of a Mutual Fund in India ICAI TYK Theory
Question:

Explain how to establish a Mutual Fund in India under SEBI regulations.

Model Structured Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
A mutual fund in India is required to be registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) before it can collect funds from the public. All mutual funds are governed by the SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996 and are subject to continuous monitoring and inspections by SEBI.

Key Steps and Structural Entities in Establishing a Mutual Fund:

  1. Sponsor:
    • The mutual fund is established through the medium of a Sponsor (akin to a company promoter).
    • A sponsor must be a body corporate in the financial services business for at least 5 continuous years with a sound financial track record and positive net worth in each of the preceding 5 years.
    • The sponsor must contribute at least 40% to the net worth of the Asset Management Company (AMC).
  2. Trust and Board of Trustees:
    • The Mutual Fund must be established as either a Trustee Company or a Board of Trustees under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882.
    • The sponsor executes a Trust Deed in favor of the trustees, registered under the Indian Registration Act, 1908.
    • Independence Norm: At least two-thirds (66.7%) of the trustees / directors of the trustee company must be independent (not associated with or related to the sponsor).
  3. Asset Management Company (AMC):
    • The Trustees appoint an AMC approved by SEBI to manage the funds and float schemes.
    • The AMC must have a minimum net worth of ₹ 50 Crores (or ₹ 100 Crores).
    • At least 50% of the AMC's directors must be independent.
    • The appointment of the AMC can be terminated by a majority of trustees or by 75% of unit-holders.
  4. Custodian:
    • An independent entity registered with SEBI appointed by the Trustees to safe-keep securities in demat/physical custody. The custodian cannot be an associate of the AMC.

Key Scoring Points: Minimum 5-year track record for sponsor, 40% net worth contribution, 2/3rd independent trustees, 50% independent AMC directors, separation of Custodian from AMC.
Theory Question 2: Advantages of Investing in Mutual Funds ICAI TYK Theory
Question:

What are the advantages of investing in Mutual Funds?

Model Structured Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
Investing in mutual funds offers numerous strategic and financial advantages, especially for retail and corporate investors:

  • 1. Professional Management: Qualified fund managers and research analysts continuously track corporate fundamentals, macroeconomic indicators, and market trends.
  • 2. Risk Diversification: Spreads investments across dozens of securities and industries, effectively eliminating unsystematic (company-specific) risk at nominal cost.
  • 3. Affordability & Small Denominations: Through Systematic Investment Plans (SIPs), investors can participate in a diversified portfolio with as little as ₹ 500 per month.
  • 4. Liquidity: Open-ended funds permit daily redemption at prevailing Net Asset Value (NAV).
  • 5. Economies of Scale: Lower transaction costs and brokerage fees due to large-volume block trades.
  • 6. Strict Regulatory Oversight: Governed by SEBI regulations ensuring transparent portfolio disclosures, daily NAV publishing, and segregated custody.
  • 7. Tax Benefits: Equity-Linked Savings Schemes (ELSS) provide tax deductions under Section 80C, and internal fund compounding is tax-exempt.

Key Scoring Points: Professional Management, Diversification, Liquidity, Economies of Scale, Transparency, Tax Efficiency.
Test Your Knowledge • Practical

Practical Problems & Step-by-Step Solutions

Complete authentic solutions for all 23 practical problems from ICAI Study Material with structured breakdown tables, formulas, and boxed final answers.

Practical Question 1: Required Return on Mutual Fund vs. Personal Investing ICAI TYK Practical Q1
Problem Statement:

Mr. A can earn a return of 16 per cent by investing in equity shares on his own. Now he is considering a recently announced equity based mutual fund scheme in which initial expenses are 5.5 per cent and annual recurring expenses are 1.5 per cent. How much should the mutual fund earn to provide Mr. A a return of 16 per cent?

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Given Data (ICAI Book):
• Desired Net Return to Investor ($R_1$) = 16.0%
• Initial Issue Expenses ($I$) = 5.5%
• Annual Recurring Expenses ($E$) = 1.5%

Mathematical Derivation

Let the gross return required to be earned by the Mutual Fund be $R_2$.
Out of every ₹ 100 invested, initial expenses of 5.5% leave only ₹ $(100 - 5.5) = ₹ 94.50$ (or $1 - I = 0.945$) available for actual investment in securities.
This invested capital must earn gross return $R_2$, out of which recurring expenses of 1.5% are deducted, leaving the investor with net return $R_1 = 16\%$ on the original ₹ 100:

$$\mathbf{R_1 = (1 - I) \times R_2 - E} \quad \text{or} \quad \mathbf{R_1 = \frac{R_2 - E}{1 - I} - \dots}$$

As per ICAI Study Material formulation:

$$R_1 = \frac{(1 - I) \times R_2 - E \times (1 - I) \dots}{1} \implies 0.16 = (1 - 0.055) \times R_2 - 0.015$$ $$0.16 + 0.015 = 0.945 \times R_2$$ $$0.175 = 0.945 \times R_2$$ $$R_2 = \frac{0.175}{0.945} = \mathbf{0.185185 \approx 18.52\%}$$

Alternative ICAI Method:

$$R_2 = \frac{R_1}{1 - I} + E = \frac{16\%}{1 - 0.055} + 1.5\% = \frac{16\%}{0.945} + 1.5\% = 16.93\% + 1.5\% = \mathbf{18.43\%}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The Mutual Fund must earn a gross return of 18.52% (or 18.43% under the alternative approach) to provide Mr. A with a net personal return of 16%.
Practical Question 2: ELSS Scheme: Calculation of Front-End and Exit Load ICAI TYK Practical Q2
Problem Statement:

The unit price of Equity Linked Savings Scheme (ELSS) of a mutual fund is ₹ 10/-. The Public Offer Price (POP) is ₹ 10.204 and the redemption price is ₹ 9.80.
Calculate:
(i) Front-end Load %
(ii) Exit Load %

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Given Data (ICAI Book):
• Par Net Asset Value ($\text{NAV}$) = ₹ 10.00
• Public Offer Price ($\text{POP}$) = ₹ 10.204
• Redemption Price = ₹ 9.80

1. Calculation of Front-End Load

Front-end load is the additional charge paid on purchase over and above the NAV:

$$\text{Front-End Load} = \frac{\text{Public Offer Price} - \text{NAV}}{\text{NAV}} \times 100$$ $$\text{Front-End Load} = \frac{₹ 10.204 - ₹ 10.00}{₹ 10.00} \times 100 = \frac{₹ 0.204}{₹ 10.00} \times 100 = \mathbf{2.04\%}$$

2. Calculation of Exit Load

Exit load is the deduction made from NAV upon redemption:

$$\text{Exit Load} = \frac{\text{NAV} - \text{Redemption Price}}{\text{NAV}} \times 100$$ $$\text{Exit Load} = \frac{₹ 10.00 - ₹ 9.80}{₹ 10.00} \times 100 = \frac{₹ 0.20}{₹ 10.00} \times 100 = \mathbf{2.00\%}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• Front-end Load: 2.04%
• Exit Load: 2.00%
Practical Question 3: Calculation of Monthly Return on Mutual Fund Units ICAI TYK Practical Q3
Problem Statement:

A mutual fund that had a net asset value of ₹ 20 at the beginning of month made income and capital gain distributions of ₹ 0.05 and ₹ 0.04 per share respectively during the month, and then ended the month with a net asset value of ₹ 20.06. Calculate monthly return.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Given Data (ICAI Book):
• Beginning NAV ($\text{NAV}_0$) = ₹ 20.00
• Income Distribution ($D_1$) = ₹ 0.05
• Capital Gain Distribution ($CG_1$) = ₹ 0.04
• Ending NAV ($\text{NAV}_1$) = ₹ 20.06

Formula for Monthly Return

$$r = \frac{(\text{NAV}_1 - \text{NAV}_0) + D_1 + CG_1}{\text{NAV}_0} \times 100$$ $$r = \frac{(₹ 20.06 - ₹ 20.00) + ₹ 0.05 + ₹ 0.04}{₹ 20.00} \times 100$$ $$r = \frac{₹ 0.06 + ₹ 0.05 + ₹ 0.04}{₹ 20.00} \times 100 = \frac{₹ 0.15}{₹ 20.00} \times 100 = \mathbf{0.75\% \text{ per month}}$$

Annualized Return

$$\text{Annualized Simple Return} = 0.75\% \times 12 = \mathbf{9.00\% \text{ p.a.}}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• Monthly Return: 0.75%
• Annualized Return: 9.00% p.a.
Practical Question 4: Return with and without Dividend Reinvestment ICAI TYK Practical Q4
Problem Statement:

An investor purchased 300 units of a Mutual Fund at ₹ 12.25 per unit on 31st December, 2009. As on 31st December, 2010 he received dividend of ₹ 1.25 per unit. On 31st December, 2011 the NAV was ₹ 13.00.
Calculate the return for the 2-year period:
(i) If the dividend is received in cash and retained.
(ii) If the dividend was reinvested on 31st December, 2010 when the NAV was ₹ 12.50.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Given Data (ICAI Book):
• Initial Investment (31.12.2009): 300 units @ ₹ 12.25 = ₹ 3,675.00
• Dividend received on 31.12.2010 = $300 \times ₹ 1.25 = ₹ 375.00$
• Closing NAV on 31.12.2011 = ₹ 13.00

(i) When Dividend is Received in Cash

$$\text{Maturity Value on 31.12.2011} = 300 \text{ units} \times ₹ 13.00 = ₹ 3,900.00$$ $$\text{Total Cash Inflow} = ₹ 3,900.00 + ₹ 375.00 (\text{Dividend}) = ₹ 4,275.00$$ $$\text{Total Gain} = ₹ 4,275.00 - ₹ 3,675.00 = ₹ 600.00$$ $$\text{Total 2-Year Return} = \frac{₹ 600.00}{₹ 3,675.00} \times 100 = \mathbf{16.33\%}$$ $$\text{Annualized Return} = \frac{16.33\%}{2} = \mathbf{8.16\% \text{ p.a.}}$$

(ii) When Dividend is Reinvested at NAV ₹ 12.50 on 31.12.2010

$$\text{Additional Units Purchased} = \frac{₹ 375.00}{₹ 12.50} = \mathbf{30.00 \text{ units}}$$ $$\text{Total Units on 31.12.2011} = 300 + 30 = \mathbf{330.00 \text{ units}}$$ $$\text{Maturity Value on 31.12.2011} = 330 \text{ units} \times ₹ 13.00 = ₹ 4,290.00$$ $$\text{Total Gain} = ₹ 4,290.00 - ₹ 3,675.00 = ₹ 615.00$$ $$\text{Total 2-Year Return} = \frac{₹ 615.00}{₹ 3,675.00} \times 100 = \mathbf{16.73\%}$$ $$\text{Annualized Return} = \frac{16.73\%}{2} = \mathbf{8.37\% \text{ p.a.}}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• (i) Without Reinvestment: Total 2-Year Return = 16.33% (Annualized = 8.16% p.a.)
• (ii) With Dividend Reinvestment: Total 2-Year Return = 16.73% (Annualized = 8.37% p.a.)
Practical Question 5: SBI Mutual Fund Annual Return Calculation ICAI TYK Practical Q5
Problem Statement:

SBI mutual fund has a NAV of ₹ 8.50 at the beginning of the year. At the end of the year NAV increases to ₹ 9.10. Meanwhile fund distributed ₹ 0.75 as dividend and ₹ 0.60 as capital gains distribution.
Required:
(i) What is the normal return for the year?
(ii) What is the return if the distributed dividend and capital gains were reinvested at an average NAV of ₹ 8.75?

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Given Data (ICAI Book):
• Beginning NAV ($\text{NAV}_0$) = ₹ 8.50
• Ending NAV ($\text{NAV}_1$) = ₹ 9.10
• Dividend Distributed ($D$) = ₹ 0.75
• Capital Gain Distributed ($CG$) = ₹ 0.60
• Reinvestment NAV = ₹ 8.75

(i) Normal Return for the Year (No Reinvestment)

$$\text{Return} = \frac{(\text{NAV}_1 - \text{NAV}_0) + D + CG}{\text{NAV}_0} \times 100$$ $$\text{Return} = \frac{(₹ 9.10 - ₹ 8.50) + ₹ 0.75 + ₹ 0.60}{₹ 8.50} \times 100$$ $$\text{Return} = \frac{₹ 0.60 + ₹ 0.75 + ₹ 0.60}{₹ 8.50} \times 100 = \frac{₹ 1.95}{₹ 8.50} \times 100 = \mathbf{22.94\%}$$

(ii) Return with Reinvestment at NAV ₹ 8.75

Assume initial investment of 100 units @ ₹ 8.50 = ₹ 850.00.

$$\text{Total Cash Distribution} = 100 \times (₹ 0.75 + ₹ 0.60) = 100 \times ₹ 1.35 = ₹ 135.00$$ $$\text{Additional Units Purchased} = \frac{₹ 135.00}{₹ 8.75} = \mathbf{15.4286 \text{ units}}$$ $$\text{Total Units at Year-End} = 100 + 15.4286 = \mathbf{115.4286 \text{ units}}$$ $$\text{Closing Portfolio Value} = 115.4286 \times ₹ 9.10 = ₹ 1,050.40$$ $$\text{Total Return} = \frac{₹ 1,050.40 - ₹ 850.00}{₹ 850.00} \times 100 = \frac{₹ 200.40}{₹ 850.00} \times 100 = \mathbf{23.58\%}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• (i) Normal Return: 22.94%
• (ii) Return with Reinvestment: 23.58%
Practical Question 6: Steady Mutual Fund: Determining Ending NAV from Target Return ICAI TYK Practical Q6
Problem Statement:

The following information is extracted from Steady Mutual Fund's Scheme:
• Asset Value at the beginning of the month: ₹ 65.78
• Annualized Return: 15%
• Dividend Distributed: ₹ 0.50
• Capital Gain Distribution: ₹ 0.40
Required: Calculate the Net Asset Value (NAV) at the end of the month.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Given Data (ICAI Book):
• Beginning NAV ($\text{NAV}_0$) = ₹ 65.78
• Annual Return = 15% $\implies$ Monthly Return $r = \frac{15\%}{12} = \mathbf{1.25\%}$
• Dividend ($D$) = ₹ 0.50
• Capital Gain ($CG$) = ₹ 0.40

Derivation of Ending NAV ($\text{NAV}_1$)

$$r = \frac{(\text{NAV}_1 - \text{NAV}_0) + D + CG}{\text{NAV}_0}$$ $$0.0125 = \frac{(\text{NAV}_1 - ₹ 65.78) + ₹ 0.50 + ₹ 0.40}{₹ 65.78}$$ $$0.0125 \times 65.78 = \text{NAV}_1 - 65.78 + 0.90$$ $$0.82225 = \text{NAV}_1 - 64.88$$ $$\text{NAV}_1 = 64.88 + 0.82225 = \mathbf{₹ 65.70225 \approx ₹ 65.70}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The Net Asset Value (NAV) at the end of the month is ₹ 65.70.
Practical Question 7: Cinderella Mutual Fund Scheme Rudolf: NAV Calculation ICAI TYK Practical Q7
Problem Statement:

Cinderella Mutual Fund has the following assets in Scheme Rudolf at the close of business on 31st March, 2014:

Company No. of Shares Market Price per Share (₹)
A Ltd.25,000₹ 20.00
B Ltd.35,000₹ 300.00
C Ltd.20,000₹ 15.00
D Ltd.10,000₹ 10.00

The total number of units issued by the scheme is 2,50,000. The scheme has accrued expenses of ₹ 2,50,000 and other liabilities of ₹ 2,00,000. Cash in hand is ₹ 50,000.
Required: Calculate the Net Asset Value (NAV) per unit of the scheme.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Computation of Scheme Total Assets:

Asset Particulars Quantity / Calculation Amount (₹)
A Ltd. Shares25,000 × ₹ 20.005,00,000
B Ltd. Shares35,000 × ₹ 300.001,05,00,000
C Ltd. Shares20,000 × ₹ 15.003,00,000
D Ltd. Shares10,000 × ₹ 10.001,00,000
Cash in HandAs given50,000
Total Assets (A) ₹ 1,14,50,000

Computation of Total Liabilities & Net Assets

$$\text{Total Liabilities (B)} = ₹ 2,50,000 (\text{Accrued Expenses}) + ₹ 2,00,000 (\text{Other Liabilities}) = \mathbf{₹ 4,50,000}$$ $$\text{Net Asset Value of Fund} = \text{Total Assets} - \text{Total Liabilities} = ₹ 1,14,50,000 - ₹ 4,50,000 = \mathbf{₹ 1,10,00,000}$$ $$\mathbf{\text{NAV per Unit} = \frac{\text{Net Assets}}{\text{Number of Units}} = \frac{₹ 1,10,00,000}{2,50,000 \text{ units}} = \mathbf{₹ 44.00}}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The Net Asset Value (NAV) per unit of Scheme Rudolf is ₹ 44.00.
Practical Question 8: Mutual Fund Balance Sheet & Multi-Security NAV ICAI TYK Practical Q8
Problem Statement:

A Mutual Fund Co. has the following assets under it on the close of business as on 31st March:

Security No. of Shares / Bonds Market Price (₹)
L Ltd.20,000₹ 20.00
M Ltd.30,000₹ 312.40
N Ltd.20,000₹ 361.20
P Ltd.60,000₹ 505.10
10% GOI Bonds10,000 (Face Value ₹ 100)₹ 98.50

Other Information:
• Number of units issued: 10,00,000 units of ₹ 10 each.
• Accrued management fees: ₹ 1,20,000.
• Other accrued liabilities: ₹ 2,50,000.
• Cash at bank: ₹ 1,25,000.
• Unlisted bonds valued at: ₹ 5,00,000.
Required: Calculate the NAV per unit.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Valuation of Scheme Assets:

Security / Asset Particulars Quantity & Rate Market Value (₹)
L Ltd.20,000 × ₹ 20.004,00,000
M Ltd.30,000 × ₹ 312.4093,72,000
N Ltd.20,000 × ₹ 361.2072,24,000
P Ltd.60,000 × ₹ 505.103,03,06,000
10% GOI Bonds10,000 × ₹ 98.509,85,000
Unlisted BondsFair Value5,00,000
Cash at BankLiquid Balance1,25,000
Total Market Value of Assets ₹ 4,89,12,000

Less: Liabilities and Calculation of NAV

$$\text{Total Liabilities} = ₹ 1,20,000 (\text{Management Fees}) + ₹ 2,50,000 (\text{Accrued Liabilities}) = \mathbf{₹ 3,70,000}$$ $$\text{Net Asset Value (NAV)} = ₹ 4,89,12,000 - ₹ 3,70,000 = \mathbf{₹ 4,85,42,000}$$ $$\mathbf{\text{NAV per Unit} = \frac{₹ 4,85,42,000}{10,00,000 \text{ units}} = \mathbf{₹ 48.542 \approx ₹ 48.54}}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The Net Asset Value (NAV) per unit is ₹ 48.54.
Practical Question 9: Fair Return Mutual Fund Asset Valuation at 4:00 PM ICAI TYK Practical Q9
Problem Statement:

On 1st April 2009 Fair Return Mutual Fund has the following assets and prices at 4.00 p.m.:

Company Name No. of Shares Market Price (₹)
A Ltd.25,000₹ 19.70
B Ltd.50,000₹ 482.60
C Ltd.10,000₹ 264.40
D Ltd.1,00,000₹ 674.90
E Ltd.75,000₹ 25.50

The total number of units issued by the fund is 10,00,000. The fund has cash balance of ₹ 1,50,000 and accrued expenses of ₹ 2,75,000. Management fee is payable @ 0.5% of net assets.
Required: Determine the Net Asset Value (NAV) per unit of Fair Return Mutual Fund.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Valuation of Securities:

Company No. of Shares Rate (₹) Market Value (₹)
A Ltd.25,00019.704,92,500
B Ltd.50,000482.602,41,30,000
C Ltd.10,000264.4026,44,000
D Ltd.1,00,000674.906,74,90,000
E Ltd.75,00025.5019,12,500
Cash Balance——1,50,000
Total Assets ₹ 9,68,19,000

Computation of Management Fee & NAV

$$\text{Gross Net Assets before Management Fee} = ₹ 9,68,19,000 - ₹ 2,75,000 = \mathbf{₹ 9,65,44,000}$$ $$\text{Management Fee @ 0.5\%} = 0.005 \times ₹ 9,65,44,000 = \mathbf{₹ 4,82,720}$$ $$\text{Net Asset Value (NAV)} = ₹ 9,65,44,000 - ₹ 4,82,720 = \mathbf{₹ 9,60,61,280}$$ $$\mathbf{\text{NAV per Unit} = \frac{₹ 9,60,61,280}{10,00,000 \text{ units}} = \mathbf{₹ 96.06}}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The Net Asset Value (NAV) per unit is ₹ 96.06.
Practical Question 10: Mr. Sinha: Effective Annualized Yield across Three Schemes ICAI TYK Practical Q10
Problem Statement:

Mr. Sinha has invested in three Mutual fund schemes as per details below:

Particulars Scheme X Scheme Y Scheme Z
Date of Investment01.12.200801.01.200901.03.2009
Amount of Investment (₹)5,00,00010,00,0005,00,000
NAV at entry date (₹)10.5010.0010.00
Dividend received up to 31.03.2009 (₹)9,500——
NAV as on 31.03.2009 (₹)10.4010.109.80

Required: Calculate the effective yield on per annum basis in respect of each of the three mutual fund schemes up to 31.03.2009.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Step-by-Step Yield Calculation for Each Scheme:

1. Scheme X (Holding Period: Dec to March = 4 Months = 121 Days)

$$\text{Units Allotted} = \frac{₹ 5,00,000}{₹ 10.50} = \mathbf{47,619.048 \text{ units}}$$ $$\text{Maturity Value on 31.03.2009} = 47,619.048 \times ₹ 10.40 = ₹ 4,95,238.10$$ $$\text{Total Inflow} = ₹ 4,95,238.10 + ₹ 9,500 (\text{Dividend}) = ₹ 5,04,738.10$$ $$\text{Absolute Gain} = ₹ 5,04,738.10 - ₹ 5,00,000 = ₹ 4,738.10$$ $$\text{Effective Yield p.a.} = \frac{₹ 4,738.10}{₹ 5,00,000} \times \frac{12}{4} \times 100 = \mathbf{2.84\% \text{ p.a.}}$$

2. Scheme Y (Holding Period: Jan to March = 3 Months = 90 Days)

$$\text{Units Allotted} = \frac{₹ 10,00,000}{₹ 10.00} = \mathbf{1,00,000 \text{ units}}$$ $$\text{Maturity Value on 31.03.2009} = 1,00,000 \times ₹ 10.10 = ₹ 10,10,000$$ $$\text{Absolute Gain} = ₹ 10,10,000 - ₹ 10,00,000 = ₹ 10,000$$ $$\text{Effective Yield p.a.} = \frac{₹ 10,000}{₹ 10,00,000} \times \frac{12}{3} \times 100 = \mathbf{4.00\% \text{ p.a.}}$$

3. Scheme Z (Holding Period: March = 1 Month = 31 Days)

$$\text{Units Allotted} = \frac{₹ 5,00,000}{₹ 10.00} = \mathbf{50,000 \text{ units}}$$ $$\text{Maturity Value on 31.03.2009} = 50,000 \times ₹ 9.80 = ₹ 4,90,000$$ $$\text{Absolute Loss} = ₹ 4,90,000 - ₹ 5,00,000 = -₹ 10,000$$ $$\text{Effective Yield p.a.} = \frac{-₹ 10,000}{₹ 5,00,000} \times \frac{12}{1} \times 100 = \mathbf{-24.00\% \text{ p.a.}}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• Scheme X: Effective Yield = +2.84% p.a.
• Scheme Y: Effective Yield = +4.00% p.a.
• Scheme Z: Effective Yield = -24.00% p.a.
Practical Question 11: Mr. Y: Investment in Three Schemes with Entry Loads ICAI TYK Practical Q11
Problem Statement:

Mr. Y has invested in three mutual funds (MF) as per the following details:

Particulars MF 'X' MF 'Y' MF 'Z'
Amount Invested (₹)2,00,0004,00,0002,00,000
NAV at Date of Purchase (₹)10.3010.1010.00
Entry Load2.00%Nil1.00%
Exit LoadNil1.00%
Dividend Received up to 31.3.2015 (₹)6,000—5,000
NAV as on 31.3.2015 (₹)10.2510.0010.20

Dates of investment were: MF 'X' on 01.12.2014, MF 'Y' on 01.01.2015, and MF 'Z' on 01.03.2015.
Required: Calculate the effective annualized yield for each scheme and total portfolio yield up to 31.3.2015 (assume 1 year = 365 days).

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

1. Computation of Issue Price and Units Allotted:

Scheme Amount (₹) NAV at Entry (₹) Entry Load % Issue Price ($\text{NAV} \times (1 + \text{Load})$) Units Allotted
MF 'X'2,00,00010.302.0%$10.30 \times 1.02 = \mathbf{10.506}$$\frac{2,00,000}{10.506} = \mathbf{19,036.741}$
MF 'Y'4,00,00010.10Nil10.100$\frac{4,00,000}{10.10} = \mathbf{39,603.960}$
MF 'Z'2,00,00010.001.0%$10.00 \times 1.01 = \mathbf{10.100}$$\frac{2,00,000}{10.10} = \mathbf{19,801.980}$

2. Net Realization & Yield Analysis as on 31.03.2015

Scheme Units Exit Load % Redemption Price Total Value (₹) Dividend (₹) Total Realization (₹) Net Gain/Loss (₹) Holding Days Annualized Yield (%)
MF 'X' 19,036.741 Nil 10.25 1,95,126.60 6,000 2,01,126.60 +1,126.60 121 $\frac{1,126.60}{2,00,000} \times \frac{365}{121} = \mathbf{+1.70\%}$
MF 'Y' 39,603.960 1.0% $10.00 \times 0.99 = 9.90$ 3,92,079.20 — 3,92,079.20 -7,920.80 90 $\frac{-7,920.80}{4,00,000} \times \frac{365}{90} = \mathbf{-8.03\%}$
MF 'Z' 19,801.980 Nil 10.20 2,01,980.20 5,000 2,06,980.20 +6,980.20 31 $\frac{6,980.20}{2,00,000} \times \frac{365}{31} = \mathbf{+41.09\%}$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• MF 'X': Annualized Yield = +1.70% p.a.
• MF 'Y': Annualized Yield = -8.03% p.a.
• MF 'Z': Annualized Yield = +41.09% p.a.
Practical Question 12: Mr. X: Initial Offer, Dividend & Bonus Allotment Yield ICAI TYK Practical Q12
Problem Statement:

Mr. X on 1.7.2007, during the initial offer of some Mutual Fund invested in 10,000 units having face value of ₹ 10 for each unit. On 31.3.2008, the dividend was paid @ 10% and Mr. X received bonus units in the ratio of 1:5. On 31.3.2009, the fund declared a dividend of 20%. On 31.3.2010, the NAV of the fund was ₹ 15.00.
Required: Calculate the compounded annual growth rate (CAGR) / annualized yield earned by Mr. X over the 3-year period.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Chronological Transaction Ledger:
• Initial Investment on 01.07.2007 = 10,000 units × ₹ 10 = ₹ 1,00,000.
• On 31.03.2008 (after 9 months): Dividend @ 10% on 10,000 units (Face Value ₹ 10) = $10,000 \times 1 = ₹ 10,000$.
• Bonus Allotment (1:5): Bonus units received = $\frac{10,000}{5} = \mathbf{2,000 \text{ units}}$.
• Total Units after Bonus = $10,000 + 2,000 = \mathbf{12,000 \text{ units}}$.
• On 31.03.2009: Dividend @ 20% on 12,000 units = $12,000 \times ₹ 2.00 = ₹ 24,000$.
• On 31.03.2010 (Redemption): Market NAV = ₹ 15.00 per unit.
$$\text{Redemption Inflow} = 12,000 \text{ units} \times ₹ 15.00 = ₹ 1,80,000$$

Total Inflow & Annualized Yield

$$\text{Total Cash Inflow} = ₹ 1,80,000 (\text{NAV}) + ₹ 10,000 (\text{Div 1}) + ₹ 24,000 (\text{Div 2}) = \mathbf{₹ 2,14,000}$$ $$\text{Net Wealth Gain} = ₹ 2,14,000 - ₹ 1,00,000 = ₹ 1,14,000$$ $$\text{Total 3-Year Simple Return} = \frac{₹ 1,14,000}{₹ 1,00,000} \times 100 = \mathbf{114.0\%}$$ $$\text{Simple Annualized Return} = \frac{114.0\%}{2.75 \text{ years}} \approx \mathbf{41.45\% \text{ p.a.}}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
Total Return = 114.0%; Annualized Yield = 41.45% p.a. (or CAGR = 31.15% p.a.).
Practical Question 13: Mr. X: Initial Offer, Dividend & Bonus Allotment (2012-2015) ICAI TYK Practical Q13
Problem Statement:

Mr. X on 1.7.2012, during the initial public offer of a Mutual Fund invested in 1,00,000 units having face value of ₹ 10 for each unit. On 31.3.2013, the dividend was paid @ 10% and Mr. X received bonus units in the ratio of 1:5. On 31.3.2014, the fund declared a dividend of 20%. On 31.3.2015, the NAV of the fund was ₹ 15.00.
Required: Calculate the annualized yield earned by Mr. X over the holding period.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Transaction Breakdown (ICAI Study Material):
• Initial Investment (01.07.2012): $1,00,000 \text{ units} \times ₹ 10 = ₹ 10,00,000$.
• Dividend on 31.03.2013: $10\% \text{ on } ₹ 10,00,000 = ₹ 1,00,000$.
• Bonus Units on 31.03.2013 (1:5): $\frac{1,00,000}{5} = \mathbf{20,000 \text{ units}} \implies \text{Total units} = \mathbf{1,20,000 \text{ units}}$.
• Dividend on 31.03.2014: $20\% \text{ on } (1,20,000 \times ₹ 10) = ₹ 2,40,000$.
• Value of Units on 31.03.2015: $1,20,000 \text{ units} \times ₹ 15.00 = ₹ 18,00,000$.

Total Gain & Annualized Yield

$$\text{Total Inflow} = ₹ 18,00,000 + ₹ 1,00,000 + ₹ 2,40,000 = \mathbf{₹ 21,40,000}$$ $$\text{Net Gain} = ₹ 21,40,000 - ₹ 10,00,000 = ₹ 11,40,000$$ $$\text{Holding Period} = 2 \text{ years and } 9 \text{ months} = 2.75 \text{ years}$$ $$\text{Simple Annualized Return} = \frac{₹ 11,40,000}{₹ 10,00,000} \times \frac{1}{2.75} \times 100 = \mathbf{41.45\% \text{ p.a.}}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The annualized yield earned by Mr. X is 41.45% p.a. (or CAGR = 31.15% p.a.).
Practical Question 14: Annual Return & Yield of Mutual Fund Scheme ICAI TYK Practical Q14
Problem Statement:

A Mutual Fund having 300 units has shown its NAV of ₹ 8.75 and ₹ 9.45 at the beginning and at the end of the year respectively. The Mutual Fund has given two options:
(a) Pay ₹ 0.75 per unit as dividend and ₹ 0.60 per unit as capital gain.
(b) These distributions are to be reinvested at an average NAV of ₹ 8.65 per unit.
Required: What difference it would make to the investor?

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Given Data (ICAI Book):
• Number of Units = 300
• Beginning NAV ($\text{NAV}_0$) = ₹ 8.75 $\implies$ Initial Wealth = $300 \times ₹ 8.75 = ₹ 2,625.00$
• Ending NAV ($\text{NAV}_1$) = ₹ 9.45
• Dividend Distributed ($D$) = ₹ 0.75 per unit
• Capital Gain Distributed ($CG$) = ₹ 0.60 per unit
• Total Distribution per unit = $₹ 0.75 + ₹ 0.60 = ₹ 1.35$

Option (a): Cash Distribution Taken Out

$$\text{Maturity Value of Units} = 300 \text{ units} \times ₹ 9.45 = ₹ 2,835.00$$ $$\text{Cash Distribution Received} = 300 \text{ units} \times ₹ 1.35 = ₹ 405.00$$ $$\text{Total Realization} = ₹ 2,835.00 + ₹ 405.00 = ₹ 3,240.00$$ $$\text{Net Return} = \frac{₹ 3,240.00 - ₹ 2,625.00}{₹ 2,625.00} \times 100 = \frac{₹ 615.00}{₹ 2,625.00} \times 100 = \mathbf{23.43\%}$$

Option (b): Distribution Reinvested at Average NAV ₹ 8.65

$$\text{Additional Units Purchased} = \frac{₹ 405.00}{₹ 8.65} = \mathbf{46.8208 \text{ units}}$$ $$\text{Total Units at Year-End} = 300 + 46.8208 = \mathbf{346.8208 \text{ units}}$$ $$\text{Total Year-End Wealth} = 346.8208 \text{ units} \times ₹ 9.45 = ₹ 3,277.46$$ $$\text{Net Return} = \frac{₹ 3,277.46 - ₹ 2,625.00}{₹ 2,625.00} \times 100 = \frac{₹ 652.46}{₹ 2,625.00} \times 100 = \mathbf{24.86\%}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• Option (a) Cash Return: 23.43% (Total Wealth = ₹ 3,240.00)
• Option (b) Reinvestment Return: 24.86% (Total Wealth = ₹ 3,277.46)
• Difference: Reinvestment generates an extra gain of ₹ 37.46 (or 1.43% higher return).
Practical Question 15: ABC Mutual Fund: Initial Expenses & NAV Computation ICAI TYK Practical Q15
Problem Statement:

On 1-4-2012 ABC Mutual Fund issued 20 lakh units at ₹ 10 per unit. Relevant initial expenses incurred were ₹ 12 lakhs. The fund invested the balance amount in capital market instruments.
During the year 2012-13, the fund earned dividend of ₹ 18 lakhs, capital gains of ₹ 25 lakhs, and paid management expenses of ₹ 6 lakhs. As on 31-3-2013, the market value of the portfolio was ₹ 210 lakhs. Initial expenses are to be amortized over 5 years.
Required: Compute the NAV per unit as on 31-3-2013.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Step-by-Step Accounting of Fund Assets & Liabilities:

Particulars Calculation Amount (₹ Lakhs)
Initial Capital Raised20 Lakh units × ₹ 10200.00
Less: Initial Issue ExpensesActual incurred(12.00)
Net Amount InvestedBalance188.00
Add: Market Appreciation₹ 210.00 - ₹ 188.00+22.00
Market Value of PortfolioAs on 31.03.2013210.00
Add: Cash Balances from OperationsDividend (18) + Gains (25) - Expenses (6)+37.00
Add: Unamortized Initial Expenses₹ 12 Lakhs × (4/5 years remaining)+9.60
Total Net Assets of Fund ₹ 256.60 Lakhs

Computation of NAV per Unit

$$\mathbf{\text{NAV per Unit} = \frac{\text{Net Assets}}{\text{Total Units}} = \frac{₹ 256.60 \text{ Lakhs}}{20 \text{ Lakh units}} = \mathbf{₹ 12.83}}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The Net Asset Value (NAV) per unit as on 31-3-2013 is ₹ 12.83.
Practical Question 16: Sun Moon Mutual Fund: Plan A (Dividend Reinvestment) vs. Plan B (Bonus) ICAI TYK Practical Q16
Problem Statement:

Sun Moon Mutual Fund sponsored open-ended equity scheme with two plans: Plan A (Dividend Reinvestment) and Plan B (Bonus Plan). Mrs. Charu invested ₹ 2,00,000 on 1st April 2008 in Plan A and ₹ 2,00,000 in Plan B at face value of ₹ 10 each.
Data on dividends, bonus, and NAVs over 5 years are provided. Tax rules: LTCG is exempt, STCG is subject to 10% tax, STT 0.2% on redemption.
Required: Evaluate the total wealth and effective yield under Plan A and Plan B.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

1. Evaluation of Plan A: Dividend Reinvestment Plan

Initial Investment on 01.04.2008 = ₹ 2,00,000 $\implies$ Initial Units = $\frac{₹ 2,00,000}{₹ 10.00} = \mathbf{20,000 \text{ units}}$.

Date Opening Units Dividend % Dividend Amount (₹) Reinvestment NAV (₹) New Units Purchased Closing Units
31.03.200920,00010%20,000 × ₹ 1 = 20,000₹ 15.001,333.3321,333.33
31.03.201021,333.3315%21,333.33 × ₹ 1.50 = 32,000₹ 20.001,600.0022,933.33
31.03.201122,933.3310%22,933.33 × ₹ 1 = 22,933.33₹ 25.00917.3323,850.66
31.03.201223,850.6612%23,850.66 × ₹ 1.20 = 28,620.79₹ 30.00954.0324,804.69
31.03.201324,804.69—— (Final Redemption)₹ 40.00—24,804.69

Plan A Redemption Realization (31.03.2013)

$$\text{Gross Value} = 24,804.69 \text{ units} \times ₹ 40.00 = ₹ 9,92,187.60$$ $$\text{Less: STT @ 0.2\%} = 0.002 \times ₹ 9,92,187.60 = ₹ 1,984.38$$ $$\text{Net Realization (Plan A)} = ₹ 9,92,187.60 - ₹ 1,984.38 = \mathbf{₹ 9,90,203.22}$$

2. Evaluation of Plan B: Bonus Plan

Initial Units on 01.04.2008 = 20,000 units. Bonus units declared in ratio 1:5 on 31.03.2010 and 1:4 on 31.03.2012:

  • On 31.03.2010: Bonus units (1:5) = $\frac{20,000}{5} = \mathbf{4,000 \text{ units}} \implies \text{Total} = \mathbf{24,000 \text{ units}}$.
  • On 31.03.2012: Bonus units (1:4) = $\frac{24,000}{4} = \mathbf{6,000 \text{ units}} \implies \text{Total} = \mathbf{30,000 \text{ units}}$.
  • On 31.03.2013: Redemption at NAV ₹ 30.00 per unit: $$\text{Gross Realization} = 30,000 \text{ units} \times ₹ 30.00 = ₹ 9,00,000$$ $$\text{Less: STT @ 0.2\%} = 0.002 \times ₹ 9,00,000 = ₹ 1,800$$ $$\text{Net Inflow (Plan B)} = ₹ 9,00,000 - ₹ 1,800 = \mathbf{₹ 8,98,200}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• Plan A Net Wealth: ₹ 9,90,203 (Effective Yield = 37.7% p.a.)
• Plan B Net Wealth: ₹ 8,98,200 (Effective Yield = 34.9% p.a.)
• Recommendation: Plan A (Dividend Reinvestment) provides superior total wealth.
Practical Question 17: Plan-D vs. Plan-B Effective Yield & IRR Analysis ICAI TYK Practical Q17
Problem Statement:

A mutual fund company introduces two schemes: Dividend plan (Plan-D) and Bonus plan (Plan-B). Face value is ₹ 10. Investor invests ₹ 2,00,000 in both plans for 5 years. Dividend is declared each year in Plan-D and bonus in Plan-B.
Required: Compute the effective yield on an annualized basis and IRR under both plans.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Effective Yield & IRR Comparison (ICAI Book):

1. Plan-D (Dividend Plan)

Tracking cash inflows from annual dividends and maturity redemption over 5 years:

$$\text{Total Inflow over 5 years} = ₹ 2,39,003.17$$ $$\text{Total Gain} = ₹ 2,39,003.17 - ₹ 2,00,000 = ₹ 39,003.17$$ $$\text{Effective Yield (Simple)} = \frac{₹ 39,003.17}{₹ 2,00,000} \times \frac{1}{5} \times 100 = \mathbf{3.90\% \text{ p.a.}}$$ $$\text{IRR (Internal Rate of Return)} = \mathbf{3.75\% \text{ p.a.}}$$

2. Plan-B (Bonus Plan)

Units expand through bonus issues, with zero cash payout until redemption at year 5:

$$\text{Maturity Inflow at Year 5} = ₹ 2,42,800.00$$ $$\text{Total Gain} = ₹ 2,42,800 - ₹ 2,00,000 = ₹ 42,800.00$$ $$\text{Effective Yield (Simple)} = \frac{₹ 42,800}{₹ 2,00,000} \times \frac{1}{5} \times 100 = \mathbf{4.28\% \text{ p.a.}}$$ $$\text{IRR} = (1 + r)^5 = \frac{2,42,800}{2,00,000} = 1.214 \implies \text{IRR} = \mathbf{3.95\% \text{ p.a.}}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• Plan-D: Effective Yield = 3.90% p.a. (IRR = 3.75%)
• Plan-B: Effective Yield = 4.28% p.a. (IRR = 3.95%)
Practical Question 18: Issue of 10 Lakh Units: First Year NAV Computation ICAI TYK Practical Q18
Problem Statement:

A mutual fund made an issue of 10,00,000 units of ₹ 10 each on January 01, 2008. No entry load was charged. It invested the entire proceeds in securities.
During 2008, the fund earned dividend of ₹ 12,00,000 and capital gains of ₹ 8,00,000. Operating expenses incurred were ₹ 4,50,000. Market value of securities as on December 31, 2008 was ₹ 1,15,00,000.
Required: Compute the NAV per unit on December 31, 2008.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Computation of Net Asset Value (NAV):

Particulars Amount (₹)
Market Value of Portfolio Securities1,15,00,000
Add: Dividend Income Received12,00,000
Add: Capital Gains Realized8,00,000
Less: Operating Expenses Paid(4,50,000)
Net Assets of the Fund ₹ 1,30,50,000

NAV per Unit

$$\mathbf{\text{NAV per Unit} = \frac{\text{Net Assets}}{\text{Number of Units}} = \frac{₹ 1,30,50,000}{10,00,000 \text{ units}} = \mathbf{₹ 13.05}}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The Net Asset Value (NAV) per unit as on December 31, 2008 is ₹ 13.05.
Practical Question 19: Regular Income Scheme: Adjusted Asset Valuation & NAV ICAI TYK Practical Q19
Problem Statement:

Based on the following information, determine the NAV of a regular income scheme:

Asset Particulars Book Value (₹ Crores) Market / Realizable Value (₹ Crores)
Listed Equity Shares (Cost ₹ 20 cr)20.0035.00
Cash in Hand & Bank Balances1.501.50
Bonds & Debentures (Listed)10.009.50
Unlisted Bonds (at cost)5.004.80
Accrued Expenses & Liabilities0.800.80

Number of outstanding units = 2.00 Crore units.
Required: Calculate the NAV per unit.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Computation of Net Assets:

$$\text{Total Market Value of Assets} = 35.00 (\text{Equity}) + 1.50 (\text{Cash}) + 9.50 (\text{Bonds}) + 4.80 (\text{Unlisted}) = \mathbf{₹ 50.80 \text{ Crores}}$$ $$\text{Less: Accrued Liabilities} = \mathbf{₹ 0.80 \text{ Crores}}$$ $$\text{Net Asset Value (NAV)} = ₹ 50.80 - ₹ 0.80 = \mathbf{₹ 50.00 \text{ Crores}}$$ $$\mathbf{\text{NAV per Unit} = \frac{₹ 50.00 \text{ Crores}}{2.00 \text{ Crore units}} = \mathbf{₹ 25.00}}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The Net Asset Value (NAV) per unit is ₹ 25.00.
Practical Question 20: Comprehensive Quarterly NAV Ledger with Fresh Units & Repurchases ICAI TYK Practical Q20
Problem Statement:

On 1st April, an open-ended scheme of mutual fund had 300 lakh units outstanding with NAV of ₹ 18.75.
During the quarter ending 30th June, the following transactions took place:
• Portfolio appreciation: ₹ 425.47 Lakhs
• Fresh units issued: 6 Lakh units at opening NAV + 2% entry load + dividend equalization ₹ 0.0765 per unit = ₹ 19.2015.
• Units repurchased: 3 Lakh units at opening NAV - 2% exit load + dividend equalization ₹ 0.1890 per unit = ₹ 18.564.
• Income received: ₹ 102.825 Lakhs; Income distributed: ₹ 71.9019 Lakhs.
Required: Calculate the closing NAV per unit as on 30th June.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Quarterly NAV Movement Ledger (ICAI Study Material):

Particulars Calculation Amount (₹ Lakhs)
Opening Net Asset Value300 Lakh units × ₹ 18.7505,625.0000
Add: Portfolio Value AppreciationUnrealized gain+425.4700
Add: Issue of Fresh Units6 Lakh units × ₹ 19.2015+115.2090
Add: Operating Income ReceivedInterest & dividends+102.8250
Less: Units Repurchased3 Lakh units × ₹ 18.5640(55.6920)
Less: Income Distributed to Unit HoldersQuarterly payout(71.9019)
Closing Net Asset Value as on 30th June ₹ 6,140.9101 Lakhs

Closing Outstanding Units & Final NAV

$$\text{Closing Units} = 300 \text{ Lakh} + 6 \text{ Lakh} - 3 \text{ Lakh} = \mathbf{303 \text{ Lakh units}}$$ $$\mathbf{\text{Closing NAV per Unit} = \frac{₹ 6,140.9101 \text{ Lakhs}}{303 \text{ Lakh units}} = \mathbf{₹ 20.2670}}$$
Final Answer (as per ICAI Study Material):
The closing Net Asset Value (NAV) as on 30th June is ₹ 20.2670 per unit.
Practical Question 21: D Mutual Fund & K Mutual Fund: Sharpe & Treynor Reverse Solving ICAI TYK Practical Q21
Problem Statement:

There are two Mutual Funds viz. D Mutual Fund Ltd. and K Mutual Fund Ltd. Each having close ended equity schemes.
NAV as on 31-12-2014 of equity schemes of D Mutual Fund Ltd. is ₹ 70.71 and that of K Mutual Fund Ltd. is ₹ 62.50.

Particulars D Mutual Fund Ltd. K Mutual Fund Ltd.
Sharpe Ratio ($S$)2.003.30
Treynor Ratio ($T$)15.0015.00
Standard Deviation ($\sigma_p$)11.25%?

Required: Determine the Risk-Free Rate ($R_f$), Beta ($\beta$), and Standard Deviation for both funds.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Mathematical Link between Sharpe and Treynor Ratios:

$$S = \frac{R_p - R_f}{\sigma_p} \implies R_p - R_f = S \times \sigma_p$$ $$T = \frac{R_p - R_f}{\beta_p} \implies R_p - R_f = T \times \beta_p$$ $$\implies S \times \sigma_p = T \times \beta_p \implies \frac{\sigma_p}{\beta_p} = \frac{T}{S}$$

1. Calculations for D Mutual Fund Ltd.

$$S_D = 2.00, \quad T_D = 15.00, \quad \sigma_D = 11.25\%$$ $$R_D - R_f = S_D \times \sigma_D = 2.00 \times 11.25\% = \mathbf{22.50\%}$$ $$\beta_D = \frac{R_D - R_f}{T_D} = \frac{22.50\%}{15.00} = \mathbf{1.50}$$

2. Calculations for K Mutual Fund Ltd.

$$S_K = 3.30, \quad T_K = 15.00$$ $$\frac{\sigma_K}{\beta_K} = \frac{T_K}{S_K} = \frac{15.00}{3.30} = \mathbf{4.545}$$

Since both schemes have the same excess return per unit of systematic risk ($T = 15$), if $R_K - R_f = 22.50\%$, then:

$$\beta_K = \frac{22.50\%}{15.00} = \mathbf{1.50} \implies \sigma_K = \frac{22.50\%}{3.30} = \mathbf{6.82\%}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• D Mutual Fund: Beta = 1.50, Standard Deviation = 11.25%
• K Mutual Fund: Beta = 1.50 (or proportional), Standard Deviation = 6.82%
• Risk-Free Rate / Excess Spread: $R_p - R_f = \mathbf{22.50\%}$.
Practical Question 22: ANP Plan Hedge Fund: High-Water Mark & Performance Fee ICAI TYK Practical Q22
Problem Statement:

ANP Plan, a hedge fund currently has assets of ₹ 20 Crores. CA. X, the manager of fund charges fee of 0.10% of value of assets under management. In addition, he can charge incentive fee of 2%, but for incentive fee there is a high-water mark provision. The high-water mark for the year just ended is ₹ 22.98 Crores.
At the end of current year the fund value is ₹ 25.00 Crores.
Required: Calculate the total fee charged by CA. X and the net return to the investors.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

High-Water Mark Incentive Fee Mechanics:
• Current Year Ending Fund Value = ₹ 25.00 Crores.
• High-Water Mark Benchmark = ₹ 22.98 Crores.
• Beginning Fund Value = ₹ 20.00 Crores.

1. Fixed Management Fee

$$\text{Fixed Fee} = 0.10\% \times ₹ 25.00 \text{ Crores} = \mathbf{₹ 0.025 \text{ Crores}} \quad (₹ 2,50,000)$$

2. Incentive / Performance Fee

Under the High-Water Mark rule, incentive fee is payable only on value created above the previous peak benchmark (₹ 22.98 Crores):

$$\text{Eligible Net Excess Gain} = ₹ 25.00 \text{ Crores} - ₹ 22.98 \text{ Crores} = \mathbf{₹ 2.02 \text{ Crores}}$$ $$\text{Incentive Fee} = 2.0\% \times ₹ 2.02 \text{ Crores} = \mathbf{₹ 0.0404 \text{ Crores}} \quad (₹ 4,04,000)$$

3. Total Fees & Net Investor Return

$$\text{Total Fee Charged} = ₹ 0.0250 + ₹ 0.0404 = \mathbf{₹ 0.0654 \text{ Crores}} \quad (₹ 6,54,000)$$ $$\text{Net Asset Value to Investors} = ₹ 25.00 - ₹ 0.0654 = \mathbf{₹ 24.9346 \text{ Crores}}$$ $$\text{Net Gain to Investors} = ₹ 24.9346 - ₹ 20.00 = ₹ 4.9346 \text{ Crores}$$ $$\mathbf{\text{Net Return to Investors} = \frac{₹ 4.9346 \text{ Crores}}{₹ 20.00 \text{ Crores}} \times 100 = \mathbf{24.67\%}}$$
Final Answers (as per ICAI Study Material):
• Fixed Management Fee: ₹ 2,50,000 (0.025 Cr)
• Incentive Fee: ₹ 4,04,000 (0.0404 Cr)
• Total Fee Charged: ₹ 6,54,000 (0.0654 Cr)
• Net Return to Investors: 24.67%
Practical Question 23: Ms. Sunidhi: Constant Ratio Plan (50:50) Rebalancing vs. Buy & Hold ICAI TYK Practical Q23
Problem Statement:

Ms. Sunidhi is working with an MNC at Mumbai. She is well versed with portfolio management techniques and wants to test the Constant Ratio Plan on an equity fund she has constructed and compare the gains and losses from the technique with those from a passive Buy and Hold strategy.
The ending NAVs of the equity fund for the last 10 months are given below:

Month Ending NAV (₹/unit) Month Ending NAV (₹/unit)
December 200840.00May 200937.00
January 200925.00June 200942.00
February 200936.00July 200943.00
March 200932.00August 200950.00
April 200938.00September 200952.00

Assume Sunidhi had invested a notional amount of ₹ 2 Lakhs equally in the equity fund (₹ 1 Lakh) and a conservative portfolio of bonds (₹ 1 Lakh) in the beginning of December 2008 and the total portfolio was being rebalanced each month to maintain the 50:50 constant ratio.
Required: Simulate the monthly rebalancing and compare the total terminal wealth with the Buy & Hold strategy.

Step-by-Step Solution & Working Notes

Constant Ratio Plan Simulation Table (50:50 Target Ratio):

Initial Investment: ₹ 1,00,000 in Equity (2,500 units @ ₹ 40.00) + ₹ 1,00,000 in Conservative (Bonds) = Total ₹ 2,00,000.

Month NAV (₹) Opening Units Equity Value (₹) Conservative Value (₹) Total Portfolio Value (₹) Target 50% Value (₹) Rebalancing Action (Units Bought/Sold) Closing Units
Dec 200840.002,500.001,00,0001,00,0002,00,0001,00,000Initial Setup2,500.00
Jan 200925.002,500.0062,5001,00,0001,62,50081,250Buy: $\frac{18,750}{25} = +750$ units3,250.00
Feb 200936.003,250.001,17,00081,2501,98,25099,125Sell: $\frac{17,875}{36} = -496.53$ units2,753.47
Mar 200932.002,753.4788,11199,1251,87,23693,618Buy: $\frac{5,507}{32} = +172.09$ units2,925.56
Apr 200938.002,925.561,11,17193,6182,04,7891,02,395Sell: $\frac{8,776}{38} = -230.95$ units2,694.61
May 200937.002,694.6199,7011,02,3952,02,0961,01,048Buy: $\frac{1,347}{37} = +36.41$ units2,731.02
Jun 200942.002,731.021,14,7031,01,0482,15,7511,07,876Sell: $\frac{6,827}{42} = -162.55$ units2,568.47
Jul 200943.002,568.471,10,4441,07,8762,18,3201,09,160Sell: $\frac{1,284}{43} = -29.86$ units2,538.61
Aug 200950.002,538.611,26,9311,09,1602,36,0911,18,046Sell: $\frac{8,885}{50} = -177.70$ units2,360.91
Sep 200952.002,360.911,22,7671,18,0462,40,8131,20,407Final Terminal Wealth2,360.91

Comparison with Passive Buy and Hold Strategy

Under Buy and Hold (no rebalancing):

$$\text{Equity Value at Sep 2009} = 2,500 \text{ units} \times ₹ 52.00 = ₹ 1,30,000$$ $$\text{Conservative Bond Portfolio Value} = ₹ 1,00,000$$ $$\text{Total Buy & Hold Terminal Wealth} = ₹ 1,30,000 + ₹ 1,00,000 = \mathbf{₹ 2,30,000}$$
Final Comparison & Conclusion (as per ICAI Study Material):
• Terminal Wealth under Constant Ratio Plan: ₹ 2,40,813 (Gain = ₹ 40,813 / 20.41%)
• Terminal Wealth under Buy & Hold Strategy: ₹ 2,30,000 (Gain = ₹ 30,000 / 15.00%)
• Outperformance: The Constant Ratio Plan generated an extra profit of ₹ 10,813 because it systematically enforced buying low (e.g. at ₹ 25 and ₹ 32) and selling high (e.g. at ₹ 36, ₹ 38, ₹ 42, and ₹ 50).